Without a doubt Romans 5:12 is one of the most misunderstood texts of the New Testament. Let us look at the verse and notice that Paul says that "death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned":

"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned" (Ro.5:12).

From this we can understand the following: (1) Sin entered the world when Adam sinned and that sin brought about spiritual death. (2) Adam's sin was somehow responsible for bringing spiritual death to all men. (3) This death came to all men because all have sinned.

What this verse does not tell us is exactly "how" Adam was responsible for bring death to all men. However, the verses which follow were written in order to explain how Adam's sin brought death to all men:

"For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come" (Ro.5:13-14).

The problem with this translation is that it makes no sense. From what is said here we must believe that until "the law" was instituted sin was in the world but that sin was not imputed to anyone. But we know that sin was indeed imputed to men before "the law" (the Mosaic Covenant) came into existence. The fate of the ungodly who lived in Sodom and Gomorrah (Jude 7) bears witness to that fact.

Verse 14 also makes no sense. According to verse 13 we must believe that sin was not imputed to men before "the Law" but then we read that "nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses." If sin was not imputed to men until "the law" then spiritual death would not have come to all men and that death would not have reigned from Adam to Moses.

An explanation that begins to clear up this confusion is provided by the second President of Dallas Theological Seminary, Dr. John F. Walvoord. Here he discusses the presence or the absence of the Greek article (the) before the Greek word translated "law.":

It is obvious that there must be some meaning to the use of ther article or its absence, particularly when we observe careful distinction often in the same verse of Scripture. It is the writer's contention that the article when used has some significance, and when it is not used there must be some reason for its absence… He (Paul) therefore concludes in 3: 20 that 'by the deeds of the law shall no flesh be justified.' As the 'law' includes both Jews and Gentiles in this summary, it is clear that it has the general meaning of any moral law" [emphasis added] (Walvoord, "Law in the Epistle to the Romans," Bibliotheca Sacra, Jan., 1937, Vol. 94, # 373, p.17,21).

Later in the same journal he says the same thing in regard to other verses, Romans 10:4-5: "In both instances 'nomos' occurs without the article. In the first instance, in vs. 4, it seems clear that the reference is to any moral law. The argument is that Christ is the end of all law, as far as law resulting in righteousness is concerned" [emphasis added] (Walvoord, "Law in the Book of Romans", Bibliotheca Sacra, July-Sept., 1937; Vol.94, #375, p.286).

Now let us look at the following two verses again:

"...even as by one man sin entered into the world, and by sin death; and thus death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: for until law sin was in the world; but sin is not put to account when there is no law" (Ro.5:12-13; J.N. Darby Translation).

These verses are speaking of "law" in a universal sense (death passed to all men), and the only universal law that has been in effect since Moses is the law which is written in the heart of all men, the same law of which the "conscience" bears witness:

"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness" (Ro.2:14-15).

When Adam ate of the "tree of the knowledge of good and evil" he had the knowledge of the law written in his heart and his "conscience" bore witness to that law. His very nature had changed. The Lord said: "Behold,the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil " (Gen.3:22). Man now had a "conscience" of the law written in his heart.

Clarence Larkin wrote: "Adam and Eve had no conscience before the 'Fall'. Conscience is a knowledge of 'Good' and 'Evil',and this Adam and Eve did not have until they had their eyes opened by eating of the 'Fruit' of the 'Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil' " (Larkin, Rightly Dividing The Word [Rev. Clarence Larkin Est.], p.19).

Dr. Renald E. Showers writes that "Genesis 3:5 and 22 indicate that

mankind obtained its awareness of good and evil as a result of eating the forbidden fruit. In other words, the human conscience began when man rebelled against God...Paul indicated that the conscience is the awareness of good and evil which exists inside human beings. It condemns people internally when they do something in the category of evil, and it commends them internally when they do something in the category of good" (Showers, The Second Dispensation, Ankerberg Theological Research Institute).

All of Adam's descendants would thereafter be born in Adam's likeness and image, also having a "conscience", or an inborn knowledge of God's law:

"And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own likeness, and after his image; and called his name Seth" (Gen.5:3).

So Adam was responsible for death coming unto all men because he was responsible for bringing "law" unto all men. When all men after Adam sinned against the law written in their hearts they died spiritually--"and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned."

If Adam would have obeyed the Lord then he would have remained in a state of "innocence" and "law" would not have come upon his descendants. And "when there is no law,sin is not imputed." If sin is not imputed then there would be no spiritual death.

Now let us look at the verses again:

"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned. (For until law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come" (Ro.5:13-14).

Here the Greek word alla is translated "nevertheless." However, that word can also mean "yea, moreover" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). Now let us insert this meaning into verse 14 and we get the following:

"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned. (For until law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Yea, moreover, death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come" (Ro.5:13-14).

Now we can understand that death came upon all men because all have sinned. A man is spiritually dead because of his own sins:

"And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses" (Col.2:13).

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